Bankruptcy as a rea...
 
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Bankruptcy as a reason for repossession

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(@rockbottomsolidbase)
Reputable Member
Joined: 13 years ago
Posts: 312
Topic starter  

I have received a letter from the solicitor for a lender on a property which is jointly owned & tenanted currently.
It states that the lender (Paragon) has been notified of 'bankruptcy proceedings' against my husband and as a result intends to sell the property.

I was discharged in Dec. 2013 but still making contributions.

I am confused as to the timing ;
1) Would lenders normally be notified at the start of our bankruptcy?
2) Why would they refer to my husband's bankruptcy as opposed to
both?
3) Can the property be repossessed now and sold despite our
discharge 13 months ago?
4) Does that mean any property we own can still be repossessed
indefinitely?

Any experts able to comment please as I'd like to call the lender and/or the solicitor with some confidence in my position.


   
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TDA (Debt Adviser)
(@tda-debt-adviser)
Illustrious Member
Joined: 17 years ago
Posts: 13594
 

Hi RBSB.

I think we're edging outside of the area of expertise of our experts here.

These are questions relating to your legal standing in connection to the property and your contract with the mortgage lender I think?

Best to run these questions by legal adviser with property experience if you can.

Qualified Debt Adviser & Forum Administrator - Ask me anything about Trust Deeds


   
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(@rockbottomsolidbase)
Reputable Member
Joined: 13 years ago
Posts: 312
Topic starter  

Thanks, I can do that, I just wanted to check if the experts knew of the bankruptcy related repossession of property and any comment on the processes of 'notification' to the lender, as in, was the lender notified as a matter of course in December 2012 when we entered sequestration?

Because we are discharged, it's not actually reliable information the lender is acting on as there are no bankruptcy proceedings, I wondered if the experts could comment on that?


   
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TDA (Debt Adviser)
(@tda-debt-adviser)
Illustrious Member
Joined: 17 years ago
Posts: 13594
 

No problem RBSB.

We can leave that open to them if they feel able to comment.

Qualified Debt Adviser & Forum Administrator - Ask me anything about Trust Deeds


   
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(@rockbottomsolidbase)
Reputable Member
Joined: 13 years ago
Posts: 312
Topic starter  

Thanks -and of course, if anyone else has had similar circumstances / same lender etc I'd be grateful for any stories you're happy to share.


   
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Kevin Mapstone
(@kevin-mapstone)
Member Admin
Joined: 17 years ago
Posts: 4253
 

All creditors, including mortgage-holders and other secured lenders, should be contacted at the start of any bankruptcy proceedings.

In any formal insolvency procedure, a secured lender does have the right to call up a security and seek to repossess and sell the property in question if they wish. However, in the vast majority of cases, this does not happen as long as the mortgage/secured loan is being repaid in line with the terms originally agreed.

It is strange that they have waited until now to take this action, but I don't think that there is any reason why they cannot seek to do it if they wish. Essentially the contract you signed at the start of the mortgage is broken by virtue of the bankruptcy. I think it would only be binding if you remortgaged at some point after the date of sequestration.

I agree with Trust Deed Assistant though, you should really look to get specialist legal advice on this matter.

Scottish Debt Solutions Expert - Ask me for help setting up a Scottish Trust Deed or Debt Arrangement Scheme plan.


   
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